Only “properly payable” checks are supposed to be cashed by banks.But just about anything with the right signature on it is properly payable, including post-dated and overdrawn checks.However, most banks -at their option- may either reject or negotiate a post dated check as if it has the current/past date on it.Since most "post dated" checks are written due to the account they are drawn on not having sufficient funds to cover it, depositing a check before its intended written date is more likely to result in it being returned for insufficient funds.If a bank has a policy of NOT accepting post-dated checks before the post-date, and the recipient tries to cash the check at a teller, the teller can easily say no. The reader can't always read all handwriting, and I would imagine it would be bad UX to refuse the check because it couldn't read the date.
You would need to send a notice of postdating to your bank describing the check.
known to be worthless when issued, both because such a check is not within the terms of the statute(17) and because the lender intends to extend credit, and does not rely on any representation by the borrower that there is money or will be in the account, and understands that there is a high degree of risk.
The following question was submitted to John Roska, an attorney/writer whose weekly newspaper column, "The Law Q&A," runs in the Champaign News Gazette. The person didn’t wait to cash it like he was supposed to, and my bank paid it, which caused several other checks to bounce.
The lease will be signed today, but the lease term doesn't commence until Feb 2010.
Is it acceptable for a Tenant to post-date the check for 1st month rent and security deposit to the date on which lease term begins?